Profiteth or profits?
[ 2007-04-03 13:55 ]
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Ccmmzz asks:
What is the difference between "profiteth" and
"profit"?
My comments:
No difference other than that "profiteth" is the third
person singular verb form of "profit".
The suffixes of "-eth" (he goeth) and "-th" (he
doth) are old English and Biblical, often found in writings connected with
the Christian Bible.
For example, in the New Testament, the Corinthians in fact, you'll read
these famous lines:
- Though I speak with the tongues of men and of
angels, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling
cymbal.
- And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all
mysteries, and all knowledge; and though I have all faith, so that I could
remove mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing.
- And though I
bestow all my goods to feed the poor, and though I give my body to be
burned, and have not charity, it profiteth me nothing....
- And now abideth faith, hope, charity, these three; but the greatest
of these is charity.
Both suffixes, however, have outlived their usefulness in everyday
English. In other words, it profiteth you little or nothing at all to say
"there it goeth", unless of course the situation calls for it, i.e. you
want to sound preachy.
This headline for example, from a story seen online attacking recent
books cashing in on religion, doesn't sound out of tune: What profiteth a
bookseller?
Otherwise, steer clear of "profiteth". Because, you see, what profits
thee will do nicely.
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| About the author:
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Zhang Xin is Trainer at chinadaily.com.cn. He has been with China Daily
since 1988, when he graduated from Beijing Foreign Studies University.
Write him at: [email protected], or raise a question
for potential use in a
future column. | |
